Home Page › Forums › History and Doctrine Discussions › If the KVJ is in the BoM can it still be inspired?
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May 28, 2013 at 1:09 am #207662
Anonymous
Guest(Yes) A ‘big deal’ in the early stages of my faith crisis was how to deal with the Book of Mormon. Until last year it was the historical record of ancient people delivered perfectly by revelation. I remember the day that I realised how heavily the BoM draws on on the KJV of both the Old and New Testament. I very nearly wrote my resignation letter that evening.
Since then, I’ve come to terms with the idea that the Book of Mormon seems to be a combination of sources. There could still have been a historical Nephi/Mormon (and there’s some reasonable evidence to support this) but the final output could be that with Joseph’s contemporary sources and ideas added into it.
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In fact, the language in the sections of the Book of Mormon that correspond to parts of the Bible is quite regularly selected by Joseph Smith, rather than obtained through independent translation. For instance, there are over 400 verses in which the Nephite prophets quote from Isaiah, and half of these appear precisely as the King James version renders them. Summarizing the view taken by Latter-day Saint scholars on this point, Daniel H. Ludlow emphasizes the inherent variety of independent translation and concludes: “There appears to be only one answer to explain the word-for-word similarities between the verses of Isaiah in the Bible and the same verses in the Book of Mormon.” That is simply that Joseph Smith must have opened Isaiah and tested each mentioned verse by the Spirit: “If his translation was essentially the same as that of the King James version, he apparently quoted the verse from the Bible.”
https://www.lds.org/ensign/1977/09/by-the-gift-and-power-of-god?lang=eng Bottom line for me: I don’t think the BoM was made up by Joseph. I don’t see it as even ‘pious’ fraud. I consider God to have inspired its production and publication. But the manner of its creation was probably not what I once thought it to be.
May 28, 2013 at 1:17 am #269504Anonymous
GuestI think the best criticism of the Book of Mormon is the language taken from the Bible – but I also believe that doesn’t mean it wasn’t inspired and shouldn’t be considered scripture. I even think it doesn’t mean it can’t be what Joseph claimed it was. There simply are enough ways to address that concern that are reasonable and rational (as much as things like this can be reasonable and rational) that I don’t think it proves or disproves anything – except that it is the inerrant word of God delivered perfectly to ancient prophets and translated exactly as delivered by Joseph. The biblical wording disproves that assumption, imo.
May 28, 2013 at 2:38 am #269505Anonymous
GuestQuote:
… Summarizing the view taken by Latter-day Saint scholars on this point, Daniel H. Ludlow emphasizes the inherent variety of independent translation and concludes: “There appears to be only one answer to explain the word-for-word similarities between the verses of Isaiah in the Bible and the same verses in the Book of Mormon.” That is simply that Joseph Smith must have opened Isaiah and tested each mentioned verse by the Spirit: “If his translation was essentially the same as that of the King James version, he apparently quoted the verse from the Bible.”
https://www.lds.org/ensign/1977/09/by-the-gift-and-power-of-god?lang=eng In reading Ludlow’s statement it says to me that the conclusion you get is based on what you believe going in, not any “facts” or “evidence”, and as my estranged daughter says “if that’s what you believe then that’s the way it is”. I’m in the middle of 3rd Nephi now and I’m aftraid after going through the sermon on the mount passages and other quotes from the KJV, I feel differently than you two do but then it likely has to do with my mindset going in.
May 28, 2013 at 3:44 am #269506Anonymous
GuestI agree, GB, which is exactly why I said it doesn’t prove or disprove anything on its own – especially whether or not the book is inspired. May 28, 2013 at 5:41 am #269507Anonymous
GuestWhat are the possible/plausible explanations for the issue? I have wondered about this issue myself but haven’t had time to investigate it further. May 28, 2013 at 5:46 am #269508Anonymous
GuestThis article is a little disconcerting (and yet from Skousen at the Maxwell Institute). http://mimobile.byu.edu/?m=5&table=insights&vol=25&num=5&id=436 He says:
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Over the past two years, I have discovered evidence for a fourth significant conclusion about the original text:4. The original vocabulary of the Book of Mormon appears to derive from the 1500s and 1600s, not from the 1800s.
Given the KJV was translated 1604-1611 that’s surely not a good thing.
Edit: it’s worth reading the article in full. Points out that many of the the 1600isms are not in the bible and were out of use by 1800s. There is also 0 words in the BoM that have their origin in the 1800s. No new (1800+) words.
Not sure why God would inspire Joseph to write with obsolete 1600s words though!
May 28, 2013 at 5:59 am #269509Anonymous
GuestBear wrote:What are the possible/plausible explanations for the issue? I have wondered about this issue myself but haven’t had time to investigate it further.
A few:
1. God is the author of all his scripture. Any great communicator will have a consistent ‘brand message’ so it’s normal that God’s word in the Bible is similar to other scriptures. There are only so many ways to say “be excellent to each other.” I was reading the NeiYe the other day (thanks Wayfarer). There’s a section that as good as says “things to act and things to be acted upon.” And every religion has the Do unto others approach. If God’s behind it all (and I believe he is) then the message is consistent.
2. As Joseph translated there were certain passages that seemed familiar and as he studied it out the KJV seemed like a reasonable way of translating it and the spirit confirmed it. Perhaps there were other times when he tried a KJV expression and a stupor of thought meant he had to try again with a different wording of the translation.
3. He copied it verbatim from the KJV. There are no contemporary quotes of people ever seeing him do this. Emma also says he was not a strong Bible scholar. But, even so, he either used a KJV bible in some parts and was directed by God to do so.
4. Or… He’s a fraud and a plagiarist who is being ‘found out.’
I go with a combination of 2 or 3.
May 28, 2013 at 4:23 pm #269510Anonymous
GuestThanks a lot. I am a little sceptical when it comes to “God is behind all”. Seems to me that God talks through a person and therefore the translation will use his language and not some exact way of saying things. I am sure wordings in the bible have changed throughout history, so it is a little “iffy” imo that God chooses the exact same wording as the current bible.
That being said, I believe in tbom in a litteral way. So if you know of any other explanations feel free to chime in!
Thanks
May 28, 2013 at 5:12 pm #269511Anonymous
GuestI look at this like the temple endowment. There is significant evidence that the endowment ceremony borrows heavily from Masonic ritual. I consider it probable that the Masonic ritual was largely an invention of the Masons and was not related in any direct way to Solomon’s Temple or to early Christianity. My conclusion is that JS was inspired by certain divine principles he saw in the Masonic ritual and modified it to teach those same principles to his followers. With the BOM the origin is much less clear. But if we apply the same thought process as with the endowment ceremony then JS could have borrowed ideas from View of the Hebrews, the Bible, revolutionary war stories, his father’s vision of the tree of life, Christopher Columbus, and/or any other source and still have the resulting work be inspired. Could it not be that JS was inspired by certain divine principles he saw in various source documents and combined them and modified them into a unique new document? Can we not look at the fruits of the BOM and conclude that if it is so inspire-
ingthen it must be inspired? Of course the next question becomes about scripture inerrancy, and Word of God, and scripture making.
Could LOTR or Harry Potter be found on a distant planet by an alien race and become their scripture and Word of God (assuming that they have a way to decipher English) in just as valid a way as we came by our own scriptures? What if the Alien prophet couldn’t really read English but found the discovery of the book and its occasional illustrations so inspiring that he filled in the blanks and created a “translation” for his people that was actually a new creation very loosely based on the original work? What if in this “translation” the alien prophet was inspired to directly insert sacred sayings of the alien people into his new work? This would serve to make the characters in the new book much less foreign (they believe and practice religion in much the same way as we do) and would validate and confirm that the “sacred sayings” are indeed sacred and of ancient origin.
Would this alien prophet and his book be a fraud?
Does this hypothetical situation apply to the story of JS? Why or why not?
Does this exercise challenge our understandings of what is means to be a “prophet” or “fraud”? How so?
Couldn’t God still be behind it all? LOTR or Harry Potter being found on a distant planet is fairly miraculous after all. Maybe God provides the catalyst and then lets things play out.
Or God could also be involved in all the minutia of the scripture making process from start to finish – from idea generation to editing to chapter headings to final publishing and cover art.
May 28, 2013 at 9:14 pm #269512Anonymous
GuestMost questions could be put to rest if we had those gold plates to examine. Until then it is fiction from the get go to me. I just no longer can give religion a pass on supporting evidence when I can not do it in the rest of my life. May 28, 2013 at 9:14 pm #269513Anonymous
GuestProbably a good thing the KJV is not subject to copyright laws, as that would change the opinion of the myriad of borrowed lines of text appearing throughout the BoM. Lawyers would have a field day and make lots of money. Personally I find it very unlikely that Joseph would take the time to exhaustively compare two scripts, and then choose to use secondary source material for use in the primary manuscript. It sets off my baloney meter. It seems way more work than straight translation, considering he would have to translate each word or paragraph he was comparing anyway.
Without taking the time to translate and compare, it would be very difficult to know where to start, where to stop, what to borrow, and in what order to arrange the borrowed text. Thus, I don’t buy the argument that it was somehow easier.
May 28, 2013 at 11:11 pm #269514Anonymous
GuestCadence wrote:Most questions could be put to rest if we had those gold plates to examine. Until then it is fiction from the get go to me. I just no longer can give religion a pass on supporting evidence when I can not do it in the rest of my life.
The fact that the Angels came back for the plates that were originally buried in a hill is the part of that whole story that is maybe the most unbelievable to me. I mean, those plates sat in upstate New York for all that time and angels were concerned about others examining them? That’s very fishy to me.
May 29, 2013 at 4:32 am #269515Anonymous
GuestBds4206 wrote:The fact that the Angels came back for the plates that were originally buried in a hill is the part of that whole story that is maybe the most unbelievable to me. I mean, those plates sat in upstate New York for all that time and angels were concerned about others examining them? That’s very fishy to me.
Yes, I think Joseph would have been hounded endlessly if people thought he had golden plates. He had to be rid of them somehow, and those magic moments only happen when no one is around to see.
May 29, 2013 at 3:09 pm #269516Anonymous
GuestI would assume he just put some pages from the KJV in his hat with the stone. 
I actually don’t have a problem with it so much.
I’m with BDS in that the plates being taken to heaven weakens the while story for me.
But at this point even if it was all made up I still can find value in it. There are too many parts that ring true to me… At least doctrinally… Maybe not historically…
May 30, 2013 at 1:12 am #269517Anonymous
Guestwuwei wrote:I would assume he just put some pages from the KJV in his hat with the stone.

I actually don’t have a problem with it so much.
I’m with BDS in that the plates being taken to heaven weakens the while story for me.
But at this point even if it was all made up I still can find value in it. There are too many parts that ring true to me… At least doctrinally… Maybe not historically…
Given the cost of a bible in those days compared to a farm labourers wages… probably not going to be tearing pages out of one

But I agree with your point.
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