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Last Sunday, we were talking about the resurrection of Jesus, and I offered it would be a shame to let this lesson go by without noting that, even with all the inconsistencies between the four gospel writers’ accounts of the resurrection, they are unified on a couple of points; one of which being that Jesus was no longer in the tomb, and second that it was specifically women (or a woman) to whom Jesus either appeared, or who received the angelic proclamation that Jesus was risen. After class, I privately told the teacher why I thought that might be the case . . .
. . . “How can there be a birth without a woman somewhere close by?”
Thoughts?
All the Best!
–Consiglieri
As an interesting aside, eyewitness testimony of women was not accepted in Jewish courts of the time. But could they get a driver’s license? SamBee wrote:As an interesting aside, eyewitness testimony of women was not accepted in Jewish courts of the time.
That is interesting…could that possibly be a factor?I always thought it might be God’s wee joke. I always thought it was because he wanted to appear first to the people he loved the most – and I mean that seriously. What Ray said. It’s speculation, of course, but I would think you would appear to your spouse/spouses first.
I like how Bruce in Montana thinks. Maybe his men disciples were all in hiding or on the run from the law at that point.
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